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I've been reading recent threads on this topic (eg: http://www.typophile.com/forums/messages/4101/55415.html?1102950751) but have a slightly different angle on the issue. I should preface this by warning that my query is based on pure ignorance; nonetheless I'm going to ask because I want to gain some input on the topic(s) below.
I've recently brought a Mac home after living with my PC for years; I've decided to have one of each for a variety of reasons: the ability to browser-test web design work, etc. It's also more convenient/reliable for freelance print design work where most of my clients are on a Mac.
The problem is that almost my entire type library is PC Type1 (other than what came with CS).
As above, I've been trying to grasp all of the recent commentary on font conversion, but I'm going to throw the question out again.
Is it ethically/legally OK for me to convert my Type1 fonts to OT so that I can use them on both of my computers (assuming that the specific font license grants usage on at least 2 CPUs)?
If the answer to 1 is yes:
Despite the fact that OT fonts are apparently cross-platform friendly, I've recently read that there can be "issues" with transferring an OT font from PC to Mac (but not the other way around). Is this still true? Or is it only an issue when transferring OT fonts to pre-OSX Macs? And if there are still issues, what might these "issues" be?
If 1 & 2 are OK, what are the potential trouble-areas in this type of conversion (using FontLab) if I'm not planning on altering the fonts in any way (combining styles, adding/altering glyphs, etc)? I've discovered that I do have to do some tinkering with naming the font, and in a couple of cases I've had to recreate the ligature substitution rules, but is there more too it than these basic "fixes"? (Of course there is, but I'm not sure what, which is why I'm asking.)
Please forgive my ignorance on these topics, but I'd like to do something about that ignorance.
Thanks in advance for any help...